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Exam Code: 1Z0-219
Exam Name: Oracle (Siebel Customer Relationship Management (CRM) 8 Business Analyst )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 For which three types of Siebel objects can a user perform assessments?
A. Partners
B. Service Requests
C. Accounts
D. Contacts
E. Opportunities
F. Activities
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 Which three client types require a locally Installed .srf file?
A. Web client
B. Handheld client
C. Wireless Web client
D. Mobile Web client
E. Developer Web client
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are the two characteristics of Multitenancy?
A. Agents cannot manually assume appropriate role based on inbound work items.
B. It allows a Call Center agent to support multiple clients at once.
C. It allows users to navigate through multi-interactions.
D. It requires users to change position to access appropriate data.
E. It allows up-to-date overview of customer service effectiveness.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 What information does Siebel Audit Trail NOT display for an audited record?
A. The ID of users who perform operations on the record
B. The operations that are performed on the record
C. Before and after values of the record's modified fields
D. The last name of the users who perform operations on the record
E. The time and date that the record was operated on
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which client accesses local .cfg and .srf files and directly accesses a local database and Siebel file
System?
A. Web Client
B. Wireless Web Client
C. Dedicated Web Client
D. Handheld Client
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is used to capture relationships between Siebel database tables?
A. Index
B. User key
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two statements are correct.?
A. Business components contain data for one fundamental business entity in the enterprise
B. A business component is a collection of related business object that represent a major area of
business.
C. The business consists of UI object definitions that specify the content of user interface.
D. A view refers to one business component whose data can be viewed and edited through a form
E. A view display, one or more applets which reference business component from the business
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 You have the choice of doing Single Instance Deployment Architecture or a Multiple Instance
Deployment Architecture. You have chosen the Single Instance Deployment. Select two benefits of a
Single Instance Deployment.
A. It provides a consistent view of all global data.
B. A single database can be taken offline without impacting other regions.
C. A single database can support multiple languages.
D. Multiple databases support resilience.
E. It minimizes demands on communication bandwidths.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which is the correct term for a list of task steps grouped under a common display name?
A. Task Group
B. Task Set
C. Task Chapter
D. Task Unit
E. Task Book
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are completing a solution to a business requirement, which includes a Siebel workflow process.
This workflow updates accounts records with updated corporate information and must run weekly for all
accounts. What would be the best method for invoking the workflow?
A. By a run-time event
B. Using a custom control
C. By a workflow policy
D. Using the workflow simulator
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-821
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 11 System Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 234 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A user Jack, using a korn shell, requests a directory listing as follows:
jack@solaris:/export/home/jack $ 1s
file filea Filea fileb Fileb filec Filec
Which two statements are correct?
A. The pattern [?i]*a will expand to fileaFilea.
B. The pattern [fF]*a? will expand to [fF] *a?.
C. The pattern [gfe] * will expand to file filea fileb filec.
D. The pattern [g-e] * will expand to file filea fileb filec.
E. The pattern [fF] [a-zA-z]i*e will expand to file.
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Your SPARC server will not boot into multi user-server milestones and you need to troubleshoot to find
out why. You need to start the server with minimal services running so that you can nm through each
milestone manually to troubleshoot the issue.
Select the option that boots the server with the fewest services running.
A. boot s
B. boot milestone none
C. boot mmilestone=single-user
D. boot mmilestone=none
E. boot mnone
Answer: A

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NO.3 You need to make sure that all of the software packages on your server are up to date. Without
installing any updates, which two commands would display .my software updates that are available in the
default Oracle repository?
A. pkglist u
B. pkg verify u ®
C. pkg search u
D. pkrj info r ®
E. pkg install nv
F. pkg update nv ®
Answer: C,F

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NO.4 user1 is attempting to assist user2 with terminating user2's process 1234.
user1 entered the following: kill -9 1234
Why does the process continue to run?
A. You can kill a process only if you are root.
B. You can kill only a process that you own.
C. You can killthe process only with the pkillcommand.
D. You need to kill the process with a stronger kill signal.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-821   1Z0-821   1Z0-821

NO.5 Your server has one zone named dbzone that has been configured, but not yet installed. Which
command would you use to view all the options that were used to configure this zone?
A. zoneadmlist icvdbzone
B. zones tat csummarydbzone
C. zonecfg zdbzoneinfo
D. zonecfg icvdbzoneinfo
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are having an issue with the shutdown command. You wish to determine if the file is a script or an
executable program. Which command would you use to determine this?
A. odshutdown
B. file shutdown
C. test shutdown
D. cksumshutdown
E. attrib shutdown
Answer: E

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NO.7 When speaking with an Oracle Support Engineer, you are asked to verify the version of the Solaris 11
build currently running on your system. Which command would display the Solaris 11 build version
currently running on your system?
A. pkg infokernel
B. cat /etc/release
C. cat /etc/update
D. prtconf | grep i update
E. pkg info entire
Answer: A

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NO.8 What determines which bits in an IP address represent the subnet, and which represent the host?
A. Subnet
B. unicast
C. netmask
D. multicast
E. broadcast
Answer: C

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NO.9 You need to configure an ISCSI target device on your x86 based Oracle Solaris II system. While
configuring the iSCSI device, the following error is displayed:
bash: stmfadm: command not found
Which option describes the solution to the problem?
A. The COMSTAR feature is not supported on the x86 platform. The featureis supported only on the
SPARC platform.
B. Use the iscsitadm command on the x86 platform when configuring an iSCSI target.
C. Install the storage-server group package on this system.
D. Start the iSCSI target daemon on this system.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You want the system to generate an email notification each time one of the services has changed its
state. Which option would send an email message to the system administrator whenever a service
changes to the maintenance state?
A. Use thesetsc command in ALOM to enable the mail alerts to be sent to a specified email address
whenever the fault management facility detects a service change to the maintenancestate.
B. Make an entry in the /etc/syslog.conf file to instruct syslogd to send an email alert whenitreceives a
message from the SMF facility that a service has changed to the maintenancestate.
C. Use the svccfg netnotify command to create a notification and send an email when a serviceenters the
maintenance state.
D. Use the scvadm command to enable the notification service. Set the gmaintenance option
onthenetnotifyservice to send an email when a service enters the maintenance state.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which best describes the svc:/system/boot-config service?
A. It is used to change the milestone on a system.
B. It is used to setthe default run level of the system.
C. It provides the parameters used to set the system to automatically perform a fast or slow reboot.
D. When the service is enabled, the system performs a fast reboot by default; when it is disable the
system performs a slow reboot by default.
Answer: D

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NO.12 User named Jack, whose account is configured to use the korn shell, logs in and examines the value
of his PATH environment variable:
jack@solaris: echo $PATH
/usr/gnu/bin:/usr/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin
There is a shell script in jack's home directory called useradd:
-r-xr-xr-x 2 jack other 1239 2012-01-05 11:42 useradd
While in his home directory, jack attempts to run the script:
jack@solaris: useradd
What will happen, and why?
A. He will get a"file not found"error, because the current directory is not in his speech path.
B. He will get a "file not found" error, because his home directory is not in his search path.
C. The useraddscript will execute, because jack is in the same directory that the script is located in.
D. Thecommand/user/sbin/useraddwill execute, because it is the last match in the search path.
E. The command /user/sbin/useraddwill execute, because it isthe first match in the search path.
Answer: C

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NO.13 zone1 is a non-global zone that has been configured and installed. zone1 was taken down for
maintenance, and the following command was run: zoneadm z zone1 mark incomplete The following
information is displayed when listing the zones on your system:
Which task needs to be performed before you can boot zone1?
A. The zone needs to be installed.
B. The zone needs to be brought to the ready state.
C. The zone needs to be uninstalled and reinstalled.
D. The zone needs to be brought to the complete state.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two accurately identify features of a Solaris 10 branded zone?
A. executes in a Solaris 10 global zone
B. is created by importing a Solaris 10 flash archive
C. enables Linux binary applicationsto run unmodified
D. provides a complete runtime environment for Solaris 9 applications
E. allows a Solaris 10 global zone to be migrated Into a Solaris 10 non-global zone on a Solaris 11 system
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 You have a ticket from a new user on the system, indicating that he cannot log in to his account. The
information in the ticket gives you both the username and password. The ticket also shows that the
account was set up three days ago.
As root, you switch users to this account with the following command:
su
newuser
You do not get an error message.
You then run 1s -1a and see the following files:
local1.cshrc local1.login local1.profile .bash_history .bashrc .profile
As root, you grep the /etc/passwd file and the /etc/shadow file for this username, with these results:
/etc/passwd contains newuser:x:60012:10:/home/newuser:/usr/bin/bash
/etc/shadow contains newuser:UP: : : : :10: :
As root, what is your next logical step?
A. Usermod f 0
B. passwd newuser
C. mkdir /home/newuser
D. useradd D
Answer: D

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NO.16 You created an IP address for interface net3 with the following command, which executed successfully:
ipadm create-addr T static a 192.168.0.100/24 net3/v4
You then ran: ipadm show if
The result indicated that the interface was down.
You then ran: ipadm delete-addr net3/v4 ipadm create-addr T static a 192.168.0.101/24 net3/v4 ipadm
show-if
The last command indicated that the interface was up. Why did it work with the second address specified,
but not the first?
A. The 192.168.0.100 address is reserved for broadcast messages.
B. Another device exists on the network, using the 192.168.0.100 address.
C. The network interface card does not support the address 192.168.0.100.
D. The address 192.168.0.100 is at a boundary and may not be configured in Oracle Solaris 11.
E. 192.168.0.100 is a DHCP address and may not be statically configured in Oracle Solaris 11.
Answer: B

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NO.17 How are operating system updates distributed in the Oracle Solaris 11 environment?
A. Updates are only available to customers with an active support contract. The updates aredistributed
through the My Oracle Support web portal and installed in a central location. Allsoftware packages are
then updated manually from the command line using the smpatchcommand.
B. Patches are download from http: //support.oracle.comeither automatically or manually. All software
packages are then updated manually from the command line using the smpatch orpatchadd commands.
C. Software updates are publishedas packages to a repository. Allsoftware packages arethenupdated
manually from the command line using the pkg command.
D. Software updates, published as packages to an OS image. All software packages are then
updatedmanually from the command line using the pkg command.
Answer: D

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NO.18 You are troubleshooting a newly installed desktop Oracle Solaris 11 system with a single network
interface. From this system, you can connect to other systems within the company intranet, but cannot
access any external services (such as websites and email), even when using IP addresses.
Examining the routing table confirms that the default route to 192.108.1.1 is missing. DHCP is not used at
this site. Which two commands will temporarily mid permanently configure the default route?
A. ipadm set-gateway 192.168.1.1
B. route add default 192.168.1.1
C. ipadm set-default 192.168.1.1
D. dladm route-add d 192.168.1.1
E. echo 192.168.1.1>/etc/gateway
F. echo 192.168.1.1 >/etc/defaultrouter
Answer: B,F

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NO.19 You have a user that needs to use the cron tool to schedule some repetitive tasks. When the user
enters the crontab e command in a terminal window, the following error appears:
crontab: you are not authorized to use cron. Sorry
In order to troubleshoot this issue, in what directory would you start your invest
A. /etc/cron.d
B. /var/spool/cron
C. /var/spool/cron/crontable
D. /var/spool/cron/atjobs
Answer: A

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NO.20 User jack on host solaris attempts to use ssh to log in to host oracle and receives this message:
jack@solaris:~$ ssh oracle
ssh: connect to host oracle port 22: connection refused
What is the problem?
A. Host oracle does not have a valid host public key.
B. Host oracle does not have a valid host private key.
C. Host solarisdoes not have a valid host public key.
D. Hostdoes not have a valid host private key.
E. Host solaris is not configured for host-based authentication.
F. Host oracleis not configured for host-based authentication.
G. Host oracleis not running the ssh service.
H. Host solaris is not running the ssh service.
Answer: G

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Exam Code: 1z0-456
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Customer Relationship Management 11g Sales Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Identify the two correct statements regarding nonrevenue forecasts.
A. Multiple overlay resources cannot be forecast to the same primary deal.
B. Organizations have to explicitly enable the nonrevenue forecasting feature.
C. Nonrevenue forecast allows the same revenue to the forecast multiple times.
D. You cannot designate territories as forecastable for nonrevenue.
E. Nonrevenue forecast has no relationship with nonrevenue; quota goals set on the territory.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company is, interested in assigning experienced and skilled sales representatives to their
key
Customers. Which two dimensions must be used for achieving this?
A. Geography
B. Account
C. Customer Size
D. Organization Type
E. Product
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Identify three functions of the Activate Sales Quota Plan process.
A. creates territory and resource quota records
B. sends workflow notifications to territory owners and administrators
C. activates territory quota spread formula
D. synchronizes territory quota changes
E. sets the sales quota plan status to Active
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 While configuring the Assignment Manager, you activate and create assignment mappings
involving
Geography ID, Industry and Customer Size. After an Internal review, your company decides to no
longer
base decisions on industry. Your supervisor asks a coworker to remove any industry considerations
from
the Fusion Assignment Manager. Your coworker does this by navigating to Industry and selecting the
Inactive check box, but forgets to modify the existing mappings that already use Industry.
Select the expected system behavior based on this scenario.
A. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function; however no new
assignment mapping could use Industry.
B. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function, but the concept
of
Industry would be automatically removed. The rule would continue on all other criteria.
C. Any assignment mapping that uses Industry would be automatically deleted.
D. Any time the existing mapping is used. Fusion will automatically create a resolution request.
E. This can't be done; assignment objects can t be set to inactive if there is a mapping defined using
the
object
Answer: E

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NO.5 Identify two components of sales coach that can assist in bringing opportunities to a
successful close.
A. recommended documents
B. process steps
C. stalled deal limit
D. task
E. opportunity status
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 There are four product lines in your sales organization. Each product has two subcategories.
Identify the product dimension attributes used for the definition of the territory structure.
A. Dimensions
B. Dimension Parameters
C. Dimension Members
D. Dimensions and Dimension Parameter
E. Dimensions, Dimension Parameters, and Dimension Members
Answer: C

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NO.7 After adding a new product to a catalog, the product does not appear within the catalog.
Identity the three actions you would take to resolve the problem.
A. Verify theproduct's life-cycle phaseand see if the start and end dates are correct.
B. Check that the product is listed in the correct catalog.
C. Verify that the catalog is set as a Rollup Catalog.
D. Verify that the catalog is not a Template Catalog.
E. Verify that the catalog edits have been published.
F. Verify that the catalog contains at least one promotion template for the new product.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 Comprehensive reference and Competitor management helps a sales organization to
increase sales velocity and sales productivity. Which is true regarding Oracle Fusion reference and
competitor management?
A. Enables a sales organization to track and manage activity threshold for a competitor.
B. Enables a sales organization to track revenue won to date, while using reference
C. Enables a sales organization to develop an end-to-end customer reference program from
reference
program development, enrolling, and managing reference.
D. Enables sales organization to develop a comprehensive SWOT analysis of a competitor.
E. Enables sales organization to develop a comprehensive SWOT analysis of a reference.
Answer: D

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NO.9 The sales manager in a company conducts product demos for customers frequently as part of
lead management. As part of his activity, the sales manager has two coordinate with different
departments in the company through emails to conduct the product demos effectively.
Coordination with other departments by emails is a time-consuming activity and requires multiple
follow ups. Choose the correct solution to automate these coordination activities.
A. UseAssessmentTemplates.
B. UseSalesMethods.
C. UseTaskTemplates.
D. UseResourcesGroups.
E. UseAssessmentTemplates andTaskTemplate.
Answer: E

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NO.10 An organization is implementing close opportunity management functionality. Select three
profile options available to configure the close opportunity management process in Oracle Fusion
Sales.
A. Close Opportunity How Enabled
B. Close Opportunity Reference Enabled
C. Close Opportunity Win/Loss Enabled
D. Close Opportunity Competitor Enabled
E. Close Opportunity Status Enabled
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.11 Select the three statements that describe the use of sales methodology in opportunity
management.
A. Selection of sales methodology is mandatory for every opportunity.
B. Sales methodologies consist of one or more sales stages.
C. Selection of sales methodology is optional for an opportunity.
D. Sales methodologiesbest describe an organization's sales process
E. Sales methodologies include sales stages; each sales stage can be tied to a range of win
probability
and status.
Answer: B,E

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NO.12 You are asked to define lookup that provides the ability to define a reference set of values
based on a lookup code. Select the lookup type that you should choose for this scenario.
A. Standard lookup
B. Value Set
C. Set-Enabled lookup
D. Common lookup
E. Value-Enabled lookup
Answer: C

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NO.13 Identify the metric that provides the sum of all weighted revenue values for all forecast items
in the
forecast period.
A. Quota metric
B. Expected Forecast metric
C. Estimated Adjustment metric
D. Pipeline metric
E. Closed Revenue metric
Answer: B

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NO.14 A territory manager has created a proposal. When the proposal is validated, it can create
active
territories. Identify a condition that would result in an error during the validation process in Oracle
Fusion
Sales.
A. Parent territory covers all the dimensions of its child territories.
B. Active resources were added as dimension members.
C. Parent territory does not cover all the dimensions of its child territories.
D. A valid product has been added as a dimension member.
E. Partner sales representatives were added to child territories.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are configuring the Sales Assignment Manager based on resource candidates and credit
allocation candidates. In your company, resources change frequently but credit allocation is more
stable.
You a currently deciding how to set the Fusion cache values.
Select the true statement based on this scenario.
A. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set at the Owner Objectlevel because resources change
frequently;the
Sales cache should be updated daily.
B. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set at the Candidate Object level, but must be the same across all
levels; because resources change frequently, the cache should be updated daily.
C. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set on individual candidate objects; Resource should be set to dally
but
Credit Allocation might be set to weekly.
D. This scenario can't be accomplished because it is not possible to have multiple candidate objects
for
one owner object.
E. Oracle Fusion Objects are not cached; therefore no cache configuration is necessary.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which three objectives are achieved by a spread formula?
A. Calculate the distribution of an amount among selected child territories regardless of the metrics
B. Spread the variance between the parent territory quota and the sum of child territory quotas to
the child territories.
C. Calculate the ratios to use for the child territories through the use of the metric defined.
D. Equally distribute quota from the parent territory to child territories.
E. Distribute quota only to the parent territory.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.17 A sales representative has closed revenue of amount X for a territory for the year 2011, and
amount Y for the same territory for the year 2009. Amount X is 122% of amount Y. The market
potential for the territory for the year 2012 is an additional 10%. Select the best rule to identify the
appropriate quota amount (110% of amount X) for the same sales rep for the territory for 2012.
A. percentage change in a measure over three name time periods
B. X% growth of a measure overthree year exponential moving average
C. weighted average of a measure over the past three years
D. Scale a measure from a past period by X%.
E. percentage change in a measure value over two named periods
Answer: E

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NO.18 When the opportunity import process was initially created, the Customer Data Management
Duplicatesfield was left blank. You are now using this process to import flat files; each flat file
contains 50 records.While reviewing the data, you happen to notice that the same opportunity is
included in two separate flat files, but the value of the Sales Stage field is different in the second file.
If you import both files, what will happen?
A. The second Import process will fail.
B. The second import process will succeed, but the duplicate opportunity record will fail.
C. The Fusion system will create a resolution request.
D. The Fusion system will create a duplicate record.
E. The Fusion system will update the opportunity record with the value from the second file.
Answer: E

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NO.19 A company has implemented Oracle Fusion Lead Management. The sales manager in the
company has asked the sales team to qualify leads for further follow ups with customers/prospects.
What are the three parameters that determine lead qualification?
A. approved budget
B. lead owner assigned
C. definite purchase timeline
D. Identified decision maker
E. ratings
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.20 After creating custom fields for opportunities, you are ready to import legacy data into the
Fusion
System. Which step is necessary before the opportunity data can be imported?
A. Navigate to the Application Composer and click the Generate button in the Import and Export,
section.
B. Navigate to the Application Composer. Select the Enable import / Export check box for each
custom
field in the Import / Export section.
C. Navigate to the Application Composer. Click the Refresh button in the Custom Objects section.
D. Navigate to the task:Manage Import / Export for Custom Fields. Click the Synchronize button.
E. No special configuration steps are necessary before legacy opportunity data is imported into
custom
fields.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1z0-584
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Human Capital Management 11g Human Resources Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You want to display a new field of sensitive data to display salary information. Which security
policy controls access to the field displayed by the component?
A. Function Security Policy
B. ADF Security expression language
C. Data Security Polity
D. Oracle Platform Security Policy
Answer: C

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NO.2 Select the four products offered as part of the Oracle Fusion HCM product family under the
business process category of Workforce Development.
A. Profile Management
B. Performance & Goal Management
C. Time and Labor
D. Talent Review
E. Network at Work
F. Learning Management
Answer: A,B,D,F

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NO.3 You are working on Implementing Fusion Human Capital Management. Some of the work
structures and need to be configured manually. Enterprise, Business Units, Legal Entities, Reference
Sets, and Legislative data Group will be part of this manual setup.
Identify the correct sequence of steps to be followed for this setup.
A. Create Enterprise > Define Business Units > Define Legal Entities > Define Reference Sets >
Define Legislative Data Group.
B. Create Enterprise > Define Legal Entities > Define Business Units > Define Reference Sets >
Define Legislative Data Group.
C. Create Enterprise > Define Business Units > Define Legislative Data Group > Define Legal
Entities > Define reference Sets.
D. Create Enterprise > Define Legal Entities > Define Reference Sets > Define Business Units >
Define Legislative Data Group
Answer: B

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NO.4 Identify the two applicable model profiles for workforce structures.
A. Jobs
B. Individual worker
C. Position
D. Department
E. Location
F. Business unit
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 As a line manager you have 10 direct reports. You have certain work scheduled that needs to
be
completed in the coming week. You have identified three of your reports to complete the task and
you would like to check for their availability in the coming week.
Which report will give you a snapshot of their availability?
A. My Organization
B. Leave Availability
C. Worker Availability
D. Predicted Worker Performance and Attrition
Answer: C

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NO.6 What Oracle Fusion Middleware features maximize the security of Fusion Applications?
A. Improved productivity, manageability, and responsibility
B. Improved extensibility, responsibility, and functionality
C. Improved productivity, adaptability, and manageability
D. Improved sustainability, adaptability, and extensibility
E. Improved adaptability, extensibility, and functionality
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are the three benefits of Oracle Fusion Applications using a Lightweight Directory Access
Protocol (LDAP) system?
A. enforces the principle of least privilege
B. segregates duties to be more rigorously enforced
C. allows principles of assured revocation to be more rigorously enforced
D. extends the database concept of a grant to applications
E. uniquely identifies a single person
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Identify the four business subprocess offered under the workforce Deployment category of
the Oracle Fusion HCM family.
A. Manage Absence
B. Manage Global Workforce
C. Manage Worker Performance
D. Manage Social Networking
E. Manage Workforce Profiles
F. Manage Workforce Life Cycle
Answer: A,D,E,F

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Exam Code: 1Z0-027
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Exadata Database Machine Administration, Software Release 11.x)
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Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two are true about Exadata storage server alerts?
A. Metric alerts are never stateful.
B. Metrics have no thresholds set on them by default.
C. SNMP alert notifications can be sent to only one destination.
D. Metric threshold; if set, will persist across storage server reboots.
E. SMTP alert notifications must be sent to both ASR manager and Enterprise Manager Agents
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 You recently upgraded your Exadata image to the latest release; previously you were using
11.2.0.3.
At the same time, you decide to address some performance problems as follows:
You noticed increased latency for the database log writer, especially during the quarterly battery
learn cycle on the cells.
You have complaints of erratic performance from certain write-intensive applications.
Which two actions could improve performance in these areas?
A. Enable write-back flashcache by setting lunWriteCacheMode to Write Back Mode.
B. Use ALTER TABLE in the database to set CELL_FLASH_CACHE = KEEP for the tables
belonging to the affected application.
C. Configure Smart Flash Log on the cells to use some of these of the space on the cell flash
devices.
D. Configure the table belonging to the affected application using CELLCLI, to the set
CELL_FLASH_CACHE = KEEP .
E. Configure Smart Flash Log on the database server to use server flash memory.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 The largest number of columns for any table is 29.

NO.4 Which two are true about the use of DBFS in a Database Machine environment?
A. DBFS must be used to bulk load data into a database on the Database Machine if the staging
area requires Exadata based shared storage.
B. DBFS must be used to have a POSIX compliant shared storage solution that is accessible from
the database servers on a Database Machine.
C. DBFS must be used to bulk load data into a production database on the Database Machine.
D. DBFSmust use the DBFS_DG diskgroup for any DBFS store.
E. DBFS must be used to have a POSIX-compliant Exadata-based shared storage solution.
Answer: A,B

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5. Which tool will provide you with diagnostic information for all the software log, trace files, and
OS
information on Database Machine?
A. dbmcheck.sh
B. diagget.sh
C. oswatcher
D. adrci
E. Enterprise Manager
Answer: B

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6. You have a partitioned database grid on an X3-2 full rack with two four-node RAC clusters
called
CLUSA and CLUSB. The storage grid, however, has not been partitioned.
Which files on which servers must be modified after connecting an Exadata storage full expansion
rack to your X3-2 Exadata Database Machine on the InfiniBand network so that the cells on the
expansion rack are added to the storage grid?
A. The CELLINIT.ORA files on database servers in CLUSA
B. The CELLIP .ORA files on the database servers in CLUSA
C. The CELLINIT.ORA files on the database servers in CLUSB
D. The CELLIP .ORA files on all existing and newly added Exadata storage servers.
E. The CELLIP .ORA files on the database servers in CLUSB
Answer: B,E

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7. A read-only application is in development and is using a test database on a Database Machine.
You are examining SQL statements from this application in an attempt to determine which ones
will benefit from the Exadata Smart scan capability.
The following is true about the tables used by the application:
1. The data for the tables has just been loaded.
2. There are no applications accessing the tables currently.
3. None of the indexes are compressed or reverse key indexes.
4. The tables use the default organization type data.

NO.5 No access is based on ROWID, or virtual columns.
Which two access paths will always generate either a set of “cell smart table scan” or a set of “cell
smart index scan” requested?
A. Full scans on sorted hash clustered tables executed in parallel
B. Full table scans on index organized tables executed in parallel.
C. Full table scans on heap tables executed in parallel
D. Full scans on index clustered tables executed in parallel
E. full scans on hash clustered tables executed in serially
F. fast full scans on B*Tree indexes executed in parallel
G. full index scans on B*Tree indexes executed in parallel
Answer: B,G

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8. You must drop all celldisks on all the cells in a quarter rack as part of a reconfiguration project,
to
support normal redundancy interleaving.
Select two actions that describe the operating system (O/S) account on the cells to which you
should log in, and the tool that may be used to drop the celldisks.
A. To the CELLMONITOR account using CELLCLI interactively on each cell.
B. To CELLADMIN account calling CELLCLI on all cells using DCLI
C. To either the CELIMONITOR or the CELLADMIN account calling CELLCLI on all cells using
DCLI
D. To the CELLMONITOR account calling CELLCLI on all cells using DCLI
E. To the CELLADMIN account using CELLCLI interactively on each cell
F. To either the CELLMONITOR or CELLADMIN account calling interactively on each cell
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 The only data types for the table are varchar (2), number, or date.

NO.7 Which three storage components are available after the standard initial Database machine
deployment?
A. The DATA_<DBM_Name> ASM diskgroup
B. The RECO_<DBM_Name> ASM diskgroup
C. Mirrored system partitions on hard disk 0 and hard disk 1
D. The DBFS_DG diskgroup with external redundancy
E. Exadata Smart Flash Cache using all of the flashdisk space
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: 1Z1-466
Exam Name: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.3 Tasks in the Project Execution and Control phase are ongoing. How often they are executed?
A. In each iteration
B. Three times
C. Five times
D. At the beginning of each week
E. As needed
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.7 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

NO.8 According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the definition of a project?
A. A sequence of tasks with a beginning and an end, bound by time, responses, and desired results
B. Anything for which there is an executed contact
C. A sequence of tasks for there is a Statement work
D. A sequence of tasks with a specified end date
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
closure of a project or phase?
A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1z0-061
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 View the Exhibit for the structure of the student and faculty tables.
You need to display the faculty name followed by the number of students handled by the faculty at
the base location.
Examine the following two SQL statements:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Only statement 1 executes successfully and gives the required result.
B. Only statement 2 executes successfully and gives the required result.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give different results.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give the same required result.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Examine the structure proposed for the transactions table:
Which two statements are true regarding the creation and storage of data in the above table
structure?
A. The CUST_STATUS column would give an error.
B. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would give an error.
C. The CUST_STATUS column would store exactly one character.
D. The CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column would not be able to store decimal values.
E. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would have a maximum size of one character.
F. The TRANS_DATE column would be able to store day, month, century, year, hour, minutes,
seconds, and fractions of seconds
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
VARCHAR2(size)Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified:
minimum size is 1; maximum size is 4, 000.)
CHAR [(size)] Fixed-length character data of length size bytes (Default and minimum size
is 1; maximum size is 2, 000.)
NUMBER [(p, s)] Number having precision p and scale s (Precision is the total number of
decimal digits and scale is the number of digits to the right of the decimal point; precision
can range from 1 to 38, and scale can range from -84 to 127.)
DATE Date and time values to the nearest second between January 1, 4712 B.C., and
December 31, 9999 A.D.

NO.3 Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It executes successfully and displays rows in the descending order of PROMO_CATEGORY .
B. It produces an error because positional notation cannot be used in the order by clause with set
operators.
C. It executes successfully but ignores the order by clause because it is not located at the end of the
compound statement.
D. It produces an error because the order by clause should appear only at the end of a compound
query-that is, with the last select statement.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?
A. Displaying a date in a nondefault format
B. Finding the number of characters in an expression
C. Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string
D. Combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 In the customers table, the CUST_CITY column contains the value 'Paris' for the
CUST_FIRST_NAME 'Abigail'.
Evaluate the following query:
What would be the outcome?
A. Abigail PA
B. Abigail Pa
C. Abigail IS
D. An error message
Answer: B

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NO.6 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the product, component, and PDT_COMP
tables.
In product table, PDTNO is the primary key.
In component table, COMPNO is the primary key.
In PDT_COMP table, <PDTNO, COMPNO) is the primary key, PDTNO is the foreign key referencing
PDTNO in product table and COMPNO is the foreign key referencing the COMPNO in component
table.
You want to generate a report listing the product names and their corresponding component names,
if the component names and product names exist.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL>SELECT pdtno, pdtname, compno, compname
FROM product _____________ pdt_comp
USING (pdtno) ____________ component USING (compno)
WHERE compname IS NOT NULL;
Which combination of joins used in the blanks in the above query gives the correct output?
A. JOIN; JOIN
B. FULL OUTER JOIN; FULL OUTER JOIN
C. RIGHT OUTER JOIN; LEFT OUTER JOIN
D. LEFT OUTER JOIN; RIGHT OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which normal form is a table in if it has no multi-valued attributes and no partial
dependencies?
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form
D. Fourth normal form
Answer: B

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NO.8 You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the
following requirements:
1. You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.
2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and
subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions.
3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.
4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for.
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. DATE
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
Answer: D

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NO.9 View the Exhibit and evaluate the structure and data in the CUST_STATUS table.
You issue the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above query?
A. It produces an error because the AMT_SPENT column contains a null value.
B. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT is less than CREDIT_LIMIT.
C. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT equals CREDIT_LIMIT, or
AMT_SPENT is null.
D. It produces an error because the TO_NUMBER function must be used to convert the result of the
NULLIF function before it can be used by the NVL2 function.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The NULLIF Function The NULLIF function tests two terms for equality. If they are equal the function
returns a null, else it returns the first of the two terms tested. The NULLIF function takes two
mandatory parameters of any data type. The syntax is NULLIF(ifunequal, comparison_term), where
the parameters ifunequal and comparison_term are compared. If they are identical, then NULL is
returned. If they differ, the ifunequal parameter is returned.

NO.10 Examine the types and examples of relationships that follow:
1.One-to-one a) Teacher to students
2.One-to-many b) Employees to Manager
3.Many-to-one c) Person to SSN
4.Many-to-many d) Customers to products
Which option indicates the correctly matched relationships?
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, and 4-d
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, and 4-b
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, and 4-d
D. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, and 4-c
Answer: C

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